Please read the comments, they are the best part.
PDQ, a married gay man who recently posted a comment says, "Webster’s defines monogamy as “the condition or practice of having a single mate during a period of time”. Married guy gets it on with a man and a woman, but his man and woman are only supposed to get it on with him exclusively? That’s not monogamy. I see that as a self serving double standard. I see married guy as a bit of a selfish, hypocritical prick frankly. You may not like the sound of that, but that’s what I see. Don’t ask of others what you aren’t willing to do yourself."
How is PDQ wrong? How is it that married bisexual men, who "want it all" are not selfish, hypocritical pricks?
At a minimum, shouldn't every cheating married bisexual make it clear that all relationships are open? The spouse can play? The lover can play?
PDQ: What about those situations where the spouse is told the truth but opts NOT to go outside of the marriage themselves? This is the agreement Mark of Edgy Husband and his spouse recently made. If one partner is satisfied and the other is not, is the unsatisfied partner a selfish hypocritical prick when he asks for an open relationship?
Isn't the crucial survivability factor for long-term marriage the ability of both spouses to compromise when they'd really prefer not to?
Is an open marriage better or worse than no marriage at all?
I look forward to your thoughtful comments.